In reply to John_Hat:
> (In reply to grumpybearpantsclimbinggoat)
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> 1. Enron was not a securitisation-related issue.
Yes it was, they where booking the revenues generated by the SPV and not declaring the underlying liabilities, from the way I understand it the method that they used was not based on true sale, which caught up with them
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> 2. Securitisations work like this;
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> Bank has a mortgage book. The amount banks are allowed to lend depends on the reserve asset requirement, which is effectively the multiple of cash reserves they are allowed to lend. this is set by the BOE for each bank, and is a cloesely guarded and sensitive figure.
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> When a bank has lent up to its maximum it cannot lend any more, as the exisitng loans will sit on the balance sheet for the next thirty years.
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> A secutitisation is a bank selling its debts - i.e. the mortgages.
Or credit cards or loans, in fact you can securities almost anything as long as it produces a revenue stream, for example.
David Bowie and Rod Stewart secritising thier back royalties
Portugal securitising their tax arrears
Real Madrid securitising their season tickets.
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> A SPV is set up, NOT under the control of the bank. The mortgages are transferred to the SPV. The bank administers the loans, so from the borrowers point of view they still pay the same person, but the funds are passed to the SPV. The bank generally creams off an administration fee.
Err yes but no, depends if it qualifies as a true sale etc, this is a bit of grey area, this is an area I am currently trying to get my head around.
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> The SPV issues bonds, generally in tranches, set up so the A bonds are paid first, then the B bonds, then the C bonds, etc. There's generally a sub-loan somewhere as well.
Aye, with you on this one, risk v return
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> As the money comes in from the mortgages (interest and principal), the SPV pays the A bondholders first, then the B, etc. A typical £1bn securitisation might have £400m A notes, £400m B, £200m C and a reserve. These are paid in order.
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> If the mortgages default, then the C bondholders don't get their money back - however they are usually being paid well over the going interest rate to cover that risk. I've seen 25% on some high risk securitisations.
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You negate to mention the role of the rating agencies and the monoline insurers, who are also on shaky ground.
> In order for the A notes not to be paid, over 60% of the mortgage book has to not pay AT ALL.
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> The amount paid by the bondholders to buy the notes is paid to the bank.
And used to pay off any loans incurred by the originator, in supplying the loan to the customer, the revenue of which is in-turn transfered to the SPV.
But do they ?
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> The bank has then effectively factored the debts. It has nothing to do with the mortgages except collect the money and pass it to the SPV. The SPV collects this cash and passes it to the bondholders. The bank gets the principal amount of the mortgages up front in cash, which means its cash reserves go up and it can lend more.
Sorry disagree with you on this one, factoring is different to securitisation,
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> Money has not been "created" - effectively the right to the debt has been sold. For the bank it receives the money from the mortgages immediately rather than waiting 30 years for it.
‘Created’ ‘recylced’, errr another grey murky area. trying to get my head around this bit to.
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> It does not "circumvent" key ratios, it is fully compliant with them. The bank has lost a long term income stream in exchange for the cash now. **It no longer owns the mortgages**. If you sell something then its perfectly sensible that its not on your balance sheet anymore.
But is does, hello Mr Bank of England we have run out of money, please sir can I have some more ?
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> I would hardly call a securitisation "exotic".
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I like the word ‘exotic’ reminds me of a sunny beach and palms trees, all this money stuff is depressing enough.
>Elvis.